Commerce Dada

 61) Demand deposits are those which can be withdrawn ------------------  a) On demand  b) At any future date  c) After one year  d) After 5 years  62) Current deposits are not entitled to-------------------.  a) Cheque book  b) Statements  c) Customer services  d) Interest  63) Introduction in all deposits account is ----------------.  a) Optional  b) Compulsory  c) Discretion of the bank  d) None of these  64) Sec 138 state that drawer of a cheque is liable to be punished if the cheque is bounded for-----------.  a) Not crossing  b) Alteration in figures  c) Being post dated  d) Insufficient fund  65) When a drawer draws a cheque without keeping sufficient balance and if the cheque is dishonored for insufficient funds, the drawer is punishable with and imprisonment which may extend to -------- and or a fine.  a) 2 months  b) 4 months  c) 1 year  d) 2 year ...

 41) As per the Act Negotiable instrument means--------  a) Document  b) Transferred instrument  c) Exchange instrument  d) Promissory note  42) Bill of exchange is a------------  a) Printed form  b) Crossing   c) Need not be a printed form  d) Conditional order  43) ---------cheque is easily transferred from one person to another by mere delivery  a) Open cheque  b) Bearer cheque  c) Order cheque  d) Stale cheque  44) The payees name is written on the cheque is called-----------.  a) Multivalued cheque  b) Open cheque  c) Crossed cheque  d) Order cheque  45) -----------cheque cannot be transferred from one person to another person by mere delivery.  a) Open cheque  b) Crossed cheque  c) Order cheque  d) Stale cheque  46) A cheque can be crossed by drawing two transverse parallel lines through top left corner of cheque is called -------------.  a) ...

 21) Banking services that increasingly rest on technology and communication system is popularly known as ---------------.  a) Hi-tech banking  b) Internet banking  c) Mobile banking  d) All the above  22) ----------- is also called Virtual Banking or anywhere banking.  a) Hi-tech banking  b) Off shore banking  c) Internet banking  d) None of the above  23) Deposit are secondary or derived from the primary deposits is known as-------------.  a) Credit creation  b) Multiple credit creation  c) Single credit creation  d) Derivative deposit  24) The Govt. delegates the right of--------------to the central bank.  a) Printing currency note  b) Coins  c) One Rupee note  d) All of these  25) The deposit balances kept by all commercial banks with the central bank are known as---------.  a) Earning per share  b) Reserve  c) Cash reserve  d) General reserve  26) -----...

1) Demand deposit also known as ---------------- .  a) Current a/c  b) Fixed Deposit a/c  c) Capital a/c  d) Recurring Deposit  2) Commercial banks to expand deposit through expanding their loans and advances is known as--------. a) Credit creation  b) Trade discount  c) Deposit  d) Bank advances  3) Rediscounting and giving advance the central bank charges interest at a rate which is known as --------------.  a) CRR  b) SLR  c) Bank rate  d) Credit  4) The nationalization of 14 commercial bank was on -----------------------.  a) 19 July 1969  b) 15 Aug 1972  c) 15 April 1980  d) 19 Jan 1959  5) The State Bank of India was established under the State Bank of India Act on ----------------.  a) 1935  b) 1948  c) 1955  d) 1952  6) ----------------commission recommended the formation of a central bank in 1926.  a) Narasimham Committee  b) Bretton Wood Committee...

 801. Asset in respect of which loss has been identified by the bank or internal auditor/external auditor or the RBI inspection, but the amount has not been written off, wholly or partly, is classifies as a) Substandard Asset b) Doubtful Asset c) Written off Asset d) Loss Asset 802. Which of the following is not classified as NPA a) Impaired b) Sub-standard c) Doubtful d) Loss 803. Erosion in the value of security can be reckoned as significant when the realizable value of the security is less than ________% of the value assessed by the bank or accepted by RBI at the time of last inspection, as the case may be a) 20 b) 50 c) 60 d) 75 804. In case of classification of advance as standard assets, provision is required by the bank a) .40% b) .50% c) .75% d) .80% 805. In case of classification of commercial real estate advance, as standard assets provision is required by the bank a) .40% b) .50% c) .75% d) 1.00% 806. In case of classification of advance as sub-standard assets, provisio...

MCQS ON AUDIT & ASSURANCE   751. A Society may invest its funds a) In stock market through stock exchange b) In the Central or Other Co-Operative Bank c) In the shares, securities, bonds or debentures of any other society whether limited liability or unlimited liability d) None of these 752. A Society may invest its funds a) In any of the securities specified in section 20 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 b) In the shares, securities, bonds or debentures of any other society with limited liability c) In any co-operative bank, other than a Central or State Co-Operative bank, as approved by the Registrar on specified terms and conditions. d) Any of the above 753. ________ % of the profits should be transferred to Reserve Fund, before distribution as dividend or bonus to members. a) 10 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30 754. A registered society may, with the sanction of the Registrar, contribute an amount not exceeding ______ of _______________ for any charitable purpose. a) 10%, Net profits r...

MCQS ON AUDIT & ASSURANCE  701. Bonus shares_____- fully paid up---- a) Must be b) May be c) May or may not be d) Should generally be 702. ________ shall carry voting right---- a) Debentures b) No debenture c) Convertible debenture d) Redeemable debentures 703. __________ issuing the debentures shall create______________ a) Every company, debentures redemption reserve b) Listed company, debenture redemption reserve c) Public company, debentures redemption reserve d) Private company, debentures redemption reserve 704. The company shall create debentures redemption reserve equivalent to ______ of the value of debentures. a) 25% b) 40% c) 50% d) 60% 705. The duties and functions of debenture trustee----- a) To protect the interest of debenture holders b) To redress the grievances of debenture holders c) Both option (a) and option (b) d) None of these 706. Before allotment of debentures prospectus should have been duly filed with------ a) Central government b) SEBI c) Registrar d) ...